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The Antichrist Of Revelation

by Henry Bechthold  
1/25/2011 / Bible Studies


The antichrist is clearly described in the book of Revelation, especially chapter 13. And, in this description, I believe that we find Satan's ultimate counterfeit of God. Satan knows that God is a "trinity", one God, but manifest in the three distinct divine persons of Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Isaiah 14:12-14 reveals that "Lucifer", Satan's original name when he was still an unfallen angel in heaven, wanted to become God. He said that he wanted to become "like" the Most High. So, now, during earth's final days, Satan tries to pull it off, by establishing his own false trinity, an "unholy trinity", on earth.

Satan, the Dragon/Devil (Revelation 12:3-4; Revelation 12:7-9), is the "unholy god the father" of this unholy trinity. The Bible refers to him as the "god" of this age in 2nd Corinthians 4:3-4, and he is referred to as the "father" of lies and the "father" of the wicked Pharisees in John 8:44.

The first beast of Revelation 13:1-8, the antichrist, is the "Unholy Christ" or unholy "god manifest in the flesh", the second person in Satan's "unholy trinity". Revelation 11:7 and Revelation 17:8 state that the antichrist-beast ascends out of the abyss or bottomless pit, which is translated from the original Greek word "abussos". The abussos is the place where the devil will be chained for 1000 years (Revelation 20:1-3), and it was also the place that the demons named "legion" begged Jesus not to cast them into (Luke 8:30-31). It is also the place that will be unlocked during the fifth trumpet, from which hordes of demon-locusts will be released with the fallen angel, Apollyon, as their leader (Revelation 9:1-3; Revelation 9:11). In view of all of this, it is apparent that the antichrist-beast is a fallen angel or "demon".

Revelation 13:17-18 says that the antichrist's name has a numeric value of 666. Therefore, the letters of his name will total 666 in some language, perhaps Greek, Hebrew or Latin. However, this text also states that it is the number of a "man". That means that the antichrist-beast is also a man!

How can the antichrist be both a demon and a man? This brings us back to my earlier statement that the antichrist-beast is the second member of Satan's "Unholy Trinity". He is the "False Christ", the "Unholy Christ", the unholy god manifest in the flesh. Jesus Christ is the God-Man, and the antichrist is the demon-man. Is this possible? From the following scriptures, you will see that it is very possible, if not probable.

In Genesis 6:1-5 we're told that the "sons of God" went into the "daughters of men", and that giants were born of them, followed by such an immediate and drastic increase of wickedness that every intent and thought of the people was wicked continually, except for Noah and his family. It became so wicked that God destroyed all of mankind except for Noah's family. This incredible spike in wickedness happened within just 1500 years of a "perfect creation" starting point. We have not replicated that level of evil in the 4500 years since then, and our starting point was from an "imperfect Noah", not a perfect Adam and Eve in the Garden of Eden. So, something out of the ordinary must have happened to radically increase the level of evil so quickly and dramatically.

The reference to the "sons of God" going into the "daughters of men" in this passage is very significant. The traditional explanation has been that these sons of God are righteous men having sexual relations with unrighteous women. There are, however, three problems with this explanation. Would truly righteous men be having sexual relations with unrighteous women? And, why would "righteous men" having sexual relations with unrighteous women cause such a great and immediate increase of evil, the likes of which we have never seen since then? Moreover, I cannot think of any other reference in Scripture when a righteous man married or had sexual relations with an unrighteous woman, where it is referred to as a "son of God" having gone into a "daughter of men". This is, in fact, a very unique passage, and I believe it has a very unique answer, which is a biblical answer.

When the fallen angel, Satan, appeared before the Lord with other apparently angelic beings, they are referred to as "sons of God" (Job 1:6; Job 2:1). Also, when God was creating the earth, which was before mankind was created, the Bible states that the "sons of God" shouted for joy (Job 38:7). So, once again, we have apparently angelic beings, or at least non-humans, because humans were not created yet, being referred to as "sons of God". Therefore, at the very least, it is certainly a plausible biblical option for us to consider the possibility of the reference to sons of God going into the daughters of men, as referring to angels mingling with women. And, because the fallen angel Satan was considered to be one of those "sons of God", we know that this term also includes "fallen angels". So, it is possible that Genesis 6:1-5 is referring to fallen angels/demons having sexual relations with women, which certainly would explain why the level of evil had such a great and immediate increase.

There are also other indications in Scripture that this indeed could be the case. Verse six in the book of Jude mentions angels who did not keep their "proper domain" and who "left their abode", and, because of which, God has put them in everlasting chains under darkness until the judgment. And, Peter adds to Jude's description, saying that God cast the angels who sinned down to hell; the Greek word used by Peter for hell is "tartaros" (2nd Peter 2:4). This is the only reference to tartaros in Scripture. It literally means the "deepest abyss". Furthermore, people are never referred to as being in, or going to, tartaros, so this "deepest abyss" was only for a group of fallen angels who sinned by leaving their proper domain. Could this be referring to the "fallen angels" (sons of God) who disobeyed God, trying to totally pollute and destroy the human race by having sexual relations with women, in an effort to quickly and drastically increase sin to such an extent that human minds would be totally taken over by it, thus resulting in God casting these angels into this "deepest abyss"? Verse seven in the book of Jude adds more biblical support for this theory, for, right after mentioning the angels who did not keep their "proper domain" and who "left their abode" in verse six; verse seven immediately follows with the statement that Sodom and Gomorrah, in a "similar manner", gave themselves over to "sexual immorality" and going after "strange flesh". Jude, verse seven, clearly states that Sodom and Gomorrah's sins of "sexual immorality" and going after "strange flesh", were similar to the sins of the fallen angels in verse six. Therefore, we know that these angels' sins were of a "sexual nature" with "strange flesh". This reference makes it highly probable that a number of fallen angels did indeed engage in sexual relations with women, which would have been "strange flesh" to angels.

Luke 8:30-31 makes this scenario seem even more likely. Why? Because when Jesus was casting out the demons named "Legion", they begged Him not to cast them into the "abussos" (abyss or bottomless pit). So, these demons were obviously aware of a very "unpleasant" place where fallen angels/demons could be cast into. How did they know this unless some of their fellow "fallen angels" had already been sent there, such as the ones who sinned by not keeping their proper domain when they, the sons of God in Genesis 6:1-5, had sexual relations with women? It is also noteworthy that the abussos (abyss or bottomless pit) is never mentioned as a place where people enter, just as tartaros (deepest abyss) is also never referred to as a place where people enter. It seems likely that these two words are referring to the same place, because, as previously mentioned, you can't get any deeper of an abyss than a bottomless one; furthermore, because both words refer to the location where disobedient fallen angels are punished.

Therefore, there is a strong biblical case that can be made that fallen angels had sexual relations with women, which created a combination "demon-man" offspring that had only evil thoughts continually (Genesis 6:5); furthermore, resulting in these fallen angels being cast into a place of torment referred to as a deepest abyss or bottomless pit.

Now, remember that the "abussos" (bottomless pit) is the place where the devil is chained for 1000 years (Revelation 20:1-3), and is also the place that will be unlocked during the fifth trumpet (Revelation 9:1-3), from which hordes of demon-locusts will be released. Finally, remember that it is the place where the "antichrist/beast" ascends from (Revelation 11:7; Revelation 17:8). This is very significant, because Revelation 13:18 states that he is a man; yet, he also had been locked away in the abussos where fallen angels/demons were kept in punishment until this abussos was unlocked during the fifth trumpet. Therefore, he apparently is a man, but he is obviously also a fallen angel/demon. How can he be both demon and man? Could he be one of the wicked "demon/men" offspring from Genesis chapter six, thus making him the perfect wicked counterfeit for Jesus Christ; Jesus being the holy God-Man offspring, and the antichrist/beast being the unholy demon-man offspring?

It is interesting and significant that "abussos" is only used one other time in Scripture, in Romans 10:7, where it refers to a place that Jesus visited or went when He died. Why would Jesus have gone to the abussos, where only fallen angels/demons and apparently also their demon-men offspring were (I say this because we know that the antichrist was also there, who is called a man while still having been one of the demons in the abussos,)? Why would Jesus have gone there, and what did He do there?

1st Peter 3:18-20 refers to Christ having gone to preach, through the spirit, to "spirits in prison" who had been disobedient during the "days of Noah". And, Ephesians 4:8-10 refers to Christ having descended into the "lower parts" of the earth, before ascending on high while "leading captivity captive" (KJV and NKJV translations), or while "He led captives in His train" (NIV and NEB translations), or while "He led a host of captives" (RSV and NASB translations); the obvious consensus of these various translations being that this Ephesians text clearly states that Jesus returned from His visit to the "lower parts" of the earth with a group that had apparently been held captive there, whom Jesus took with Him when He "ascended on high".

Could it be that Christ's infinite love, grace, mercy and equitable justice caused Him to give an opportunity for salvation to those who had no opportunity before, because they had "demonic genes" mingled with human genes resulting from the intercourse of fallen angels with the daughters of men, which had caused their thoughts to be evil continually, as stated in Genesis 6:1-5? And, were these demon-men offspring in Genesis, the "spirits in prison" from the days of Noah that the Bible says Christ preached to in 1st Peter 3:18-20?

At His death, did Christ's spirit descend into the "lower parts" of the earth mentioned in Ephesians 4:8-10, into the "abussos" referred to in Romans 10:7, where He preached, as Peter states in 1st Peter 3:19, the gospel to this "tainted offspring" in such a manner that they would also have an opportunity for salvation? And, did many or perhaps most of them accept the gospel; thus constituting the "host of captives" that Christ victoriously took captive to Himself when He ascended back to heaven?

Could it then be possible that Satan chose to exalt one of the remaining demon-men offspring to the position of being the second person in his "unholy trinity-godhead", because this demon-man had maintained his fidelity to Satan by refusing the gospel message preached by Christ, and also because his combined demon-man status made him the perfect "unholy counterfeit" of Jesus' combined God-Man status? And now, after having been locked away in the dreaded "abussos" for 2000 years due to his rejection of the gospel, he is among those who are released when the abussos is unlocked during the fifth trumpet (Revelation 9:1-3; Revelation 11:7; Revelation 17:8). Therefore, he comes out with such a ferocious vengeance, hatred and malevolence against Jesus, that he relishes the idea of stealing His glory by impersonating Him; moreover, that causes him to want to exterminate all those who call on the name of Jesus Christ.

I believe that this scenario with the antichrist-beast imitating Christ's supernatural "God/Man" status, by being an evil, supernatural demon/man, accords with Scripture. And, the following scriptures give additional evidence of antichrist's attempt to duplicate the role of Jesus Christ. The Bible states that the antichrist claims to be God, even as Jesus did (2nd Thessalonians 2:3-4,9-10; John 5:18; John 8:58). Scripture also says that the "dragon-devil/unholy father" gives the antichrist/beast his power and authority, just as Jesus said that His Father gave Him His authority and power to do the works that He did (Revelation 13:4; John 14:10-11). And, the antichrist/beast receives a deadly wound and revives (Revelation 13:3), even as Jesus died on the cross and resurrected. Furthermore, Revelation 13:4 reveals that as people were worshipping the antichrist/beast, they were simultaneously worshipping the "dragon-devil/unholy father", because the antichrist was sent by and represented the dragon; this copies what Jesus said about Him having been sent by His Father, and that when we honor, believe in, receive, know and see Jesus, we also honor, believe in, receive, know and see His Father (John 5:23; John 12:44; John 13:20; John 14:7; John 14:9). It is indeed obvious that the antichrist-beast is an attempted "evil duplicate" of Jesus Christ.

If the dragon-devil is the unholy father of Satan's false and "unholy trinity", and the antichrist-beast/demon-man is the second person in this unholy trinity, the "unholy god manifest in the flesh"; then, who is the third person of Satan's trinity? Who is his replacement for the Holy Spirit?

It is the second beast that appears in Revelation 13, referred to as "another beast" (Revelation 13:11). This second beast and his role are described in detail in Revelation 13:11-17. We're told that he looks like a lamb, but that he speaks like a dragon. We know that Jesus Christ is the "Lamb of God" in Scripture, and that the dragon represents the devil. Therefore this second beast entity must pretend to be lamb-like or Christ-like, but his words and his commands come straight from the devil. This passage in Revelation states that he has the same authority as the "first beast" (antichrist) in his presence, and that he does miracles to deceive the world in order to cause people to worship the antichrist-beast. We're told that he actually has an "image", apparently a statue/idol, made to the antichrist; moreover, that he miraculously causes this "icon" to breathe and speak. Revelation 13:15 states that everyone is commanded to worship this idol, and if they don't, they will be killed. We're talking about full-blown idolatry here.

How could this happen in our 21st century world? I believe that we live in a world that is prepared to believe in and worship such a "talking image" as the one presented in Revelation 13. Three billion Muslims, Hindus and Buddhists are already accustomed to worshipping and bowing to supposedly "sacred places" and/or religious statues. And, Roman Catholics throughout the world have been bowing to and revering religious statues for many centuries; besides, in recent times, some Catholic icons have been mysteriously and miraculously weeping tears or oozing oil, resulting in their veneration and worship; these things preparing earth's billion Catholics to also accept and worship such a talking image.

Why do I say that this second beast of Revelation 13 is the devil's replacement for the Holy Spirit in Satan's "unholy trinity"? There are several reasons. The second beast is also called the "false prophet", in Revelation 16:13, and prophecy is one of the gifts of the Holy Spirit. Also, whereas the antichrist-beast is referred to as a "man", the "second beast/false prophet" is never referred to as a man, just as the Holy Spirit is not a man. Could he be the exact opposite, the "complete counterfeit" of the Holy Spirit; nothing more than one of Satan's evil spirits (the "unholy spirit") impersonating a human prophet? And, could it be possible that his impersonation will take on the form of the prophet Mohammed having returned to earth, so as to secure the support of earth's one and a half billion Muslims?

Also, remember that the Holy Spirit testifies of Jesus and glorifies Him (John 15:26; John 16:14). And, this "second beast/false prophet" testifies of the antichrist-beast and glorifies and exalts him to the extent of causing the world to worship him, even having an image/idol made to him (Revelation 13:11-15). Additionally, just as it is the Holy Spirit who provides power and "powerful gifts", like the working of miracles (Acts 1:8; 1st Corinthians 12:10-11), likewise this "second beast/false prophet" also does powerful miracles (Revelation 13:13-14). He is indeed an apparent counterfeit for the Holy Spirit. Thus, with the "false prophet" playing the role of the "unholy spirit", Satan's unholy trinity is complete.

For a more thorough study of the antichrist, the mark of the beast and other prophecies in the book of Revelation, read my article titled, The End of the World, at my website address listed below.

I am an evangelical, non-denominational, Christian pastor. You can research other interesting and provocative topics at my website: http://www.godormen.com.

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