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Israel's And Judaism's Feasts: Should Christians Keep Them?

by Henry Bechthold  
1/26/2011 / Bible Studies

Israel's and Judaism's feasts and ceremonies are being revived in some Christian circles by pro-Judaism church leaders who wish to implement the ceremonies and feasts of Judaism within Christianity. To begin with, they seem to intentionally forget that the offering of animal sacrifices was an integral part of all of these ceremonies and feasts. If they are right in saying that we need to be keeping these "old covenant" events, then we also need to be offering the animal sacrifices that were at the very heart of these ceremonies and feasts. Of course, contemporary pro-Judaism teachers realize that such a notion would be totally rejected, because all Christians know that Christ's sacrifice replaced the offering of animals. Therefore, they conveniently refrain from mentioning one of the primary focuses of these feasts, the animal sacrifices, when they endorse their observance. The bottom line is that these teachers are not truly keeping the feasts themselves, because you cannot do so without the animal sacrifices. There is no place in all of Scripture where God has ever endorsed a "partial feast" observance, where you keep certain parts of the feast, but not others. You either keep the feasts in the way that God ordained, and offer the animal sacrifices that He ordained, or you don't keep them at all, because you realize that they have been fulfilled by Jesus.

We will examine many scriptures that reveal the fulfillment and termination of these Old Covenant religious events. Ephesians 2:11-16 states that Jesus abolished a law of commandments with "ordinances", which separated Jew and gentile. Colossians 2:13-17 states that Jesus wiped out some handwritings of ordinances or requirements, and nailed them to the cross; and, because He did this, no one should be judged concerning food, drink, new moons, special sabbaths or feasts, because they are only a "shadow" of things to come. The original Greek word, heorte, which is translated as feasts, holy days or festivals in this text, is translated as feasts all 26 times it is used elsewhere in the New Testament, so, "feasts" is the correct word.

What law of ordinances or requirements, which was full of shadows or symbols of things to come, is the Apostle Paul declaring to have been abolished and nailed to the cross? What law contained requirements concerning food, drink, feasts new moons and sabbaths?

We know that Paul is not referring to the Ten Commandments Moral Law, because the Ten Commandments make no mention of food, drink, new moon or feast requirements, and also because the original Greek word used by Paul in both Ephesians and Colossians is "dogma", which is never translated as law or commandments one single time in the New Testament. Any good Bible student knows that the only possible and logical biblical answer is the various Old Covenant ceremonial laws and ordinances regarding the feasts and other special days, which did indeed have requirements and instructions concerning food, drink, new moons, "special sabbaths", etc. Additionally, all of these things were indeed shadows or symbols of the things to come concerning the coming Messiah, His ministry and His atonement. Therefore, the ceremonial laws and ordinances containing these feasts, new moons, food and drink requirements, and the "special sabbaths" of the Old Covenant, are obviously what Paul states that Jesus has abolished and nailed to the cross. Why would He do that? Because they were only symbols of Him, His ministry and atonement that He had fulfilled, so there was no need of the symbols anymore. In 2nd Corinthians 1:19-20, we're told that "all" of the promises of God receive their "Yes" and "Amen" in Jesus Christ. In other words, Jesus is the fulfillment of them all.

The book of Hebrews contrasts the differences between the "first" or "old" covenant of the Old Testament, with the "second" or "new" covenant that Jesus established in the New Testament. Hebrews specifically states that the Old Covenant was only symbolic of the New Covenant that was to come, and that the Old Covenant is now obsolete and was taken away by Jesus! Hebrews also clearly defines that Old Covenant as representing the Old Testament earthly tabernacle and its services and sacrifices. It refers to them as being only a "shadow of good things to come". That is the same wording used by Paul in Colossians to describe what had been "wiped out" and nailed to the cross, and which included "feasts and new moons". The New Testament leaves no doubt that the various ceremonies, ordinances and feasts of the Old Covenant have been fulfilled and terminated in Jesus Christ. The specific texts from Hebrews that I have referred to are as follows.

Hebrews 9:1-5 tells us that the first covenant had an earthly sanctuary with ordinances of service. Hebrews 8:1-5 says that this earthly tabernacle with its priests, sacrifices and services, was only a shadow of the heavenly reality, and that Jesus is the true High Priest, who ministers in the true tabernacle in heaven.

Hebrews 8:6-8 states that the first covenant proved faulty, so, a new and better covenant was established related to Jesus' more excellent ministry. Hebrews 10:1-8 proclaims that the Old Covenant with all of its sacrifices, was only a shadow of good things to come, and could not make people perfect. It is also significant that this Old Covenant and its sacrifices were referred to as a "type of law" in Hebrews 10:1 and 10:8. Remember that the New Testament book of Ephesians said that a "law" containing ordinances had been abolished by Jesus Christ.

Hebrews 9:9-10 declares that the earthly sanctuary and its ordinances of service were only symbolic or figurative; only being imposed until the time of reformation, because these earthly services could not change the conscience. Hebrews 9:11-15 states that Christ came to mediate a "New Covenant", which would accomplish what the first covenant could not, which is the cleansing of the conscience. Hebrews 10:9 then tells us that when Jesus established the second covenant, He took away the first! Hebrews 8:13 additionally states that this New Covenant made the first covenant "obsolete", and caused it to be vanishing away.

The New Testament makes it "crystal clear" that the first covenant in the Old Testament, with all of its ceremonies, ordinances, feasts and services, was fulfilled and terminated by Jesus Christ, and is no longer binding upon Christians. That is probably why the Bible uses different terminology when mentioning the feasts in the New Testament, than it does in the Old Testament. On numerous occasions in the Old Testament, the feasts are referred to as the Lord's feasts or as feasts of the Lord. For example, the Passover was called the "Lord's Passover" (Exodus 12:11; Exodus 12:27; Leviticus 23:5). The Feast of Tabernacles was called a "feast of the Lord" (Leviticus 23:34; Leviticus 23:39). They were the "Lord's feasts" because He had established them, and also because they were reminding people of the coming Messiah, His ministry and atonement. However, once Jesus had come and completed His mission, in fulfillment of these Old Covenant ceremonies, feasts and rituals, they were unnecessary and irrelevant. That is probably why the New Testament never refers to them as the Lord's feasts.

Once Jesus had fulfilled His mission, these Old Covenant feasts and ceremonies were nothing more than unnecessary rituals. In fact, in the gospel of John, which was one of the last New Testament books written, probably at least twenty years after the destruction of Jerusalem in fulfillment of Jesus' prophecy; John repeatedly refers to these feasts as Jewish feasts, rather than the Lord's feasts. Instead of the Lord's Passover, he calls it the "Passover of the Jews" (John 2:13; John 6:4; John 11:55). Instead of calling the Feast of Tabernacles a feast of the Lord, he calls it the "Jews' feast of tabernacles" (John 7:2). Additionally, in John 5:1, he refers to another "feast of the Jews".

This is also why you do not find any references to gentile converts to Christianity in the New Testament, being required to keep the feasts of the old covenant. In fact, when the apostles held their official meeting to discuss the requirements for gentile believers in Acts chapter 15, the only additional Old Testament ceremonial requirements they placed upon them, were to abstain from blood, from things strangled, from fornication and from foods offered to idols. There were no required feasts or new moons, because these things had been fulfilled and terminated by Jesus. It is noteworthy that, in response to the Pharisees' assertion that gentiles needed to be circumcised and keep the "law of Moses" (Acts 15:5), Peter said: "Why do you test God by putting a "yoke" on the neck of the disciples which neither our fathers nor we were able to bear (Acts 15:10)?" According to this scripture, those who attempt to enforce the ceremonial laws of Moses in the New Testament "gospel era", with the exception of the four ceremonial items that the apostles specifically mentioned as still being required, are testing God and "placing yokes" on people. We do not want to be found guilty of such a serious charge.

It is also significant that, as Paul and his companions went through the gentile cities declaring the apostles decision (Acts 16:4), the original Greek word used for the apostles' decree is "dogma". Why is that significant? It is the same word used in Colossians 2:14 to describe the Jews' ceremonial laws or ordinances that included the food, drink, new moons, special sabbath days and feasts mentioned in Colossians 2:16. In other words, the apostles' "dogma/decree" in Acts 16:4 dealt with the same subject discussed in Colossians 2:14-17; that is, once again, those foods, drinks, new moons, special sabbath days and feasts of the whole Jewish ceremonial system. And, out of all of that Jewish ceremonial "dogma", what did the apostles declare to still be relevant in the New Testament Church? Just the four things previously mentioned, which did not include any "feasts or new moons" etc. (Note: The Ten Commandments moral law was obviously still assumed to be binding upon the gentiles. Why? Because the apostles certainly would not be telling the gentiles that they could not eat food offered to idols, but that it was ok to worship idols. They would not be saying that the gentiles could not commit fornication, but that it was ok to commit adultery. They would not be saying that the gentiles could not eat things with blood in it, but that it was ok to murder and shed blood. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that the Ten Commandments moral law was unquestionably assumed to still be binding, and that the apostles were simply listing the only four items from the ceremonial laws that were required over and above God's Ten Commandment Law in the New Testament era.)

In addition to all of the biblical evidence we've examined concerning the fulfillment and termination of the Old Covenant ceremonies and feasts, the New Testament also issues stern warnings against those who try to require obedience to these Old Covenant ordinances. Paul warns us not to be brought into "bondage", by observing days, months, seasons and years in Galatians 4:9-10. Furthermore, in Galatians 4:11, he tells those who have begun to observe these things, that he is "afraid" for them, because he is concerned that his gospel labors on their behalf may have been in vain. It is also significant, that those who teach people to observe circumcision and these extra "old covenant special days", are denounced in the Bible. They are called "false brethren" and spies in Galatians 2:4. They are accused of bewitching people (Galatians 3:1), and of perverting the gospel of Christ by preaching a "different gospel" (Galatians 1:6-7). They are called accursed (Galatians 1:8-9), and are said to be "under a curse" in Galatians 3:10. They are accused of bringing people into bondage (Galatians 2:4; Galatians 5:1), and of causing people to become estranged or "separated from Christ", and thus to "fall from grace" (Galatians 5:4). Finally, the Bible declares that these false legalistic teachers will bear their judgment (Galatians 5:10).

This is serious business! God obviously does not tolerate people adding onto the gospel. He plainly states that all who do so will bear their judgment. Why? The New Testament clearly teaches that Jesus has fulfilled all of the Old Covenant ceremonies, ordinances and feasts. He was the "perfect fulfillment" of every single one of them. That is why Paul even stated that Christ Himself is our Passover (1st Corinthians 5:7), which was one of the most esteemed Jewish feasts. The Passover and every other feast were only symbols of the coming Messiah, His ministry and atonement. Jesus Christ is the reality and fulfillment. Therefore, we do not need the symbols anymore.

We are to trust that Jesus fulfilled everything completely and perfectly. For someone to require our continued performance of these Old Covenant symbols, in addition to Jesus' fulfillment of them, is to imply that He didn't perfectly fulfill them. It is going back to a "Jesus Plus" system, which contradicts the Bible, perverts the gospel, and indirectly insults Jesus by implying that He did not perfectly and completely fulfill and finish His mission. It is no coincidence that, as Jesus was proclaiming "it is finished", while on the cross, simultaneously the veil which separated the Holy and Most Holy places in the temple was being torn apart. (The Most Holy Place was only visible and accessible to the High Priest, and only once each year on the Day of Atonement, which was probably the most sacred day of the year). The tearing of the veil, exposing the Most Holy Place to the open view of all as Jesus was proclaiming "it is finished," testified to the conclusion of the "Old Covenant" ceremonies, rituals and feasts; it revealed that even the Most Holy Place of the temple, which was entered only during the most sacred "Day of Atonement" festival, had reached its ultimate fulfillment at the cross, and had truly finished its course, even as Jesus proclaimed "it is finished." What Jesus had finished and completed, man should not attempt to continue.

Contemporary pro-Judaism teachers also claim that the New Testament reveals that the Apostle Paul, who wrote many of these scriptures we've examined, still regularly attended the Old Covenant feasts himself. However, a thorough biblical study of Paul's writings and journeys reveals that these teachers are either dishonest or are ignorant of the biblical record of Paul's life. Paul did not regularly attend these feasts.

There were three main feasts each year that truly religious Jews would unwaveringly attend. All Jewish men who sincerely believed and practiced the religion of Judaism would be sure to be present at these feasts. Paul's life as a Christian spanned approximately thirty years, from the "mid-thirties" to the "mid-sixties" AD. That means that Paul would have had the opportunity to attend about ninety of these major feasts during his life as a Christian. However, the Bible reveals that Paul only attended, at most, four or five of those ninety feasts!

Galatians 1:18 explains that Paul did not even visit Jerusalem for over three years after his conversion, and that he only stayed for fifteen days. Galatians 2:1 states that he did not return to Jerusalem again for fourteen years. Acts chapters thirteen and fourteen cover Paul's first missionary journey through the cities of the gentiles. It is commonly agreed by most historians that this journey must have encompassed at least two years. Acts 15:40 through Acts 18:18 reveals that, during his second missionary journey, Paul spent at least three years traveling through numerous gentile cities. Acts 18:23 through Acts 21:15 reveals that Paul's third missionary journey among the gentiles also spanned a period of at least three years. Acts 24:27 states that Paul spent two years in "house arrest" under a Roman governor named Felix in Ceasarea. And, Acts 28:30 tells us that he spent an additional two years under house arrest in Rome. Furthermore, there were additional time periods of house arrest under the Roman governor Festus in Acts chapters twenty-five and twenty-six. When Paul's life is carefully charted out in the Bible, it is clear that, with the exception of "at most" four or five brief visits to Jerusalem, he spent his entire Christian life away from Jerusalem. The Apostle Paul only attended, at most, four or five Jewish feasts in his thirty years of being a Christian! It is obvious that these feasts were not religiously significant to Paul.

It is also noteworthy that Paul explains the motivation which prompted his participation in the few feasts that he did attend. In 1st Corinthians 9:19-22 he states that he would meet people wherever they were at, in order to win them to Christ. He says that he became all things to all men, so that he might save them. He specifically states that to those who were "Jews" or under the law, he also conducted himself as under the law. In fact, he even clearly states that he did so in order to win the Jews and those who were under the law. Paul occasionally practiced and adhered to some of the Old Covenant ceremonies and ordinances as an "inroad" to evangelize the Jews. He, in fact, only rarely participated in them himself, and never encouraged others to do so. The assertion by contemporary, pro-Judaism teachers that Paul regularly attended these Jewish feasts is blatantly in error.

Another false claim by contemporary pro-Judaism teachers probably should also be addressed. What is that claim? These teachers say that, even if Jesus has fulfilled the "Spring Feasts", such as the Passover and Pentecost Feasts, yet, the three "Fall Feasts" or festivals: The Feast of Trumpets on the first day of the seventh month of the Jewish calendar, The Day of Atonement on the tenth day of the seventh month, and The Feast of Tabernacles beginning on the fifteenth day of the seventh month; they say that these "Fall Feasts" have not been fulfilled, and, therefore, should be kept by Christians. It is suggested that the Feast of Trumpets represents the "secret rapture", and that Jesus will indeed rapture His Church away on the literal day of the Feast of Trumpets. Likewise, it is suggested that the Day of Atonement represents the day that Jesus will return as Lord and King to judge the earth, and that, once again, Jesus will indeed return to do this on the literal Day of Atonement, after having spent seven years with the raptured saints in heaven. Furthermore, it is suggested that the Feast of Tabernacles represents Jesus' millennial reign on earth, and that Jesus will begin His millennial reign on the first day of the literal Feast of Tabernacles.

What about it? Do these "Fall Feast" claims have any biblical support? None whatsoever! In my article titled, "The Secret Rapture", I present overwhelming proof that this "rapture doctrine" is contradicted by dozens of scriptures. Therefore, the Feast of Trumpets would be representing a rapture that does not exist in Scripture. Also, this "Fall Feasts" doctrine teaches that there will be two more returns of Jesus; one to rapture the saints on the Feast of Trumpets, and one to reign and judge the earth on the Day of Atonement. Of course, this also contradicts many scriptures, as also documented in my "Secret Rapture" article. The Bible teaches that there is one return of Jesus before the millennial reign, not two. And, to begin with, the entire concept of predicting the day of Jesus' return is a direct contradiction of Jesus' statement that no one knows the day of His return (Matthew 24:36; Mark 13:32). This fact alone, that these pro-Judaism teachers are blatantly contradicting the words of Jesus, should be enough to make all sincere Christians distance themselves from these Judaistic teachings.

Also, the Day of Atonement did not point forward to Jesus' second coming to reign as Lord and King; it pointed forward to His first coming as Savior, the sacrificial divine Lamb of God. As it says in Hebrews 9:7-26, whereas earthly high priests entered the Most Holy Place once each year with the "blood of animals"; Jesus, following His sacrifice on the cross, entered the Most Holy Place in heaven with "His own blood". This text states that He did this "once for all", and contrasts Jesus Christ's one-time sacrifice of Himself with the earthly high priests' animal sacrifices that needed to be offered every year. Hebrews 9:26 sums up what the Day of Atonement was all about when it states that Jesus appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself. In fact, the Old Testament book of Leviticus, when describing the ceremonies conducted on The Day of Atonement, also sums up its meaning and focus in Leviticus 16:29-30, when it states that it was the day when the atonement was made to cleanse the people from their sins. All mature and biblically informed Christians know that this was fulfilled by Jesus Christ's sacrifice of Himself on the cross.

It is also noteworthy that the ritual of the "Lord's goat" and the scapegoat, described in Leviticus chapter sixteen, received perfect fulfillment in the Lord's triumphant death on the cross, and in its portending doom for the devil. The "Lord's goat" was sacrificed, and its blood was taken into the sanctuary to be presented before God for the forgiveness and remission of the people's sins, which was symbolic of Jesus' shed blood for the forgiveness and remission of our sins. And, just as the scapegoat, the antithesis of the Lord's goat, was held responsible for the sins of the people, and was cast out or taken away into the wilderness; we see this fulfilled in Jesus' statement that, when He was lifted up on the cross, the "ruler of this world" (Satan) would also be cast out (John 12:31-32). In other words, Satan's fate was sealed. He would also be held responsible for all of the sin, misery and death that he had caused. In summation, the Day of Atonement was perfectly fulfilled by Jesus Christ's sacrifice on the cross "once for all", as stated in Hebrews chapter nine. For these pro-Judaism teachers to assert that the Day of Atonement has not yet been fulfilled is an attack on the finished work of Jesus Christ on the cross.

Finally, regarding the Feast of Tabernacles, all of the scriptures that mention the Feast of Tabernacles follow: 2nd Chronicles 5:3; 2nd Chronicles 7:8-10; 2nd Chronicles 8:13; Zechariah 14:16-19; Ezra 3:4; Deuteronomy 31:10; Deuteronomy 16:13-16; Leviticus 23:34-44; Nehemiah 8:14-18; Exodus 23:14-17; Exodus 34:22; Numbers 29:12-38; John 7:2. Do any of these passages speak of looking "forward" to a temporal millennial reign of the Messiah? Not one of them! In fact, in Leviticus 23:34-44, this feast looks "backward" to the Israelites' time of sojourning in the wilderness. And, in Deuteronomy 16:13-16, once again we find this feast looking "backward" in thanksgiving for the fall harvest that God has blessed them to reap. Moreover, the passage in Numbers 29:12-38, which is the longest and most detailed reference to the Feast of Tabernacles in the Bible, is focused almost entirely on animal sacrifices; thus clearly revealing, as I've previously mentioned, that the sacrificing of animals was at the heart of this Feast also, and thereby conclusively demonstrating that you cannot keep this feast without the offering of animal sacrifices. So, you either keep the Feast, and offer the sacrificial animals that God commanded, or you don't keep it at all because you recognize that Jesus perfectly fulfilled it. Once again, God has not authorized a "partial" feast observance anywhere in Scripture, where you pick and choose parts of the feast that you will or will not obey.

It is also noteworthy, as documented earlier, that the "only" New Testament reference that mentions the Feast of Tabernacles by name, in John 7:2, now refers to this feast as the Jews' Feast of Tabernacles, not as the Lord's feast or as a Christian feast. This is because Jesus has fulfilled this feast also. You see, we all, before accepting Jesus as our Savior and Lord, were wandering and abiding in a dry and barren "spiritual wilderness". Yet, God has also lovingly and faithfully provided for and protected us while in our past spiritual, wilderness wanderings, just as He did for the Jews in their wandering and dwelling in the literal, physical wilderness. And, now, because of Jesus Christ, we no longer abide in a spiritual wilderness; we now abide in Jesus Christ, as the branch abides in the vine (John 15:1-8). And, we no longer celebrate a literal, physical harvest of fruit, as the Jews did in the Old Covenant, but we celebrate a spiritual harvest of bearing spiritual fruit that results from our abiding in Christ; that is, the "fruit of the spirit" and the fruit of saved souls resulting from our personal relationship with Jesus. In the Old Covenant, the Jews kept and celebrated "types and symbols". In the New Covenant, we celebrate the perfect reality and fulfillment found in the gospel of Jesus Christ. What mature and sound-minded Christian would want to return to celebrating Old Covenant meager types and symbols, when we have the glorious New Covenant gospel of Jesus Christ? In fact, that is exactly what Paul asks the Christian Church in Galatia, which had been invaded by similar pro-Judaism teachers (Galatians 4:9-11).

Another related "Judaistic issue" concerns the additional requirement that many "Old Covenant" teachers are attempting to impose upon Christians, by stressing the great importance of stating our Savior's name as "Yahshua", instead of Jesus. These teachers point out that Mary and Joseph would have spoken Hebrew, and that the angel Gabriel, therefore, would also have spoken Jesus' name to them in Hebrew. This may be true, but the fact of the matter is, that in the original language of Scripture, Jesus is not called by the Hebrew word Yahshua one single time in the entire Bible!

The Old Testament, which was written in Hebrew, never speaks the actual name of the coming Messiah. Therefore, Jesus is not called Yahshua in all of the Old Testament. Yahshua is used numerous times for Joshua in the Old Testament, but never for Jesus.

The New Testament, which was written in Greek, speaks Jesus' name hundreds of times, and every single time it is written in Greek as "Iesous" (ee-ay-sooce). The original Hebrew word of Yahshua is not used one single time for Jesus in all of the New Testament either. Therefore, as previously stated, Jesus Christ is never referred to as Yahshua in the entire Bible!

It is noteworthy, that the Bible states that all of Scripture is inspired by God, and that holy men of God spoke as they were moved by the Holy Spirit (2nd Timothy 3:16; 2nd Peter 1:21). Therefore, we also know that God used the original wording that He wanted when the Scriptures were written. If it were so important for Christians to be speaking our Savior's name as Yahshua, certainly God would have made sure to include the original Hebrew word Yahshua for Jesus' name someplace in the Bible, but it never appears in the original language as our Savior's name in all of Scripture.

It is also interesting that Mark's gospel uses at least six original Hebrew or Aramaic words (henceforth simply cited as Hebrew for the sake of brevity), mixed in with his gospel written in Greek. He uses the Hebrew word "ephphatha" in Mark 7:34, also the Hebrew words "talitha" and "cumi" in Mark 5:41, as well as the Hebrew words "Eloi", "lama" and "sabachthani" in Mark 15:34. However, Mark never uses the original Hebrew word Yahshua to refer to Jesus. Mark refers to Jesus by the Greek word "Iesous" 96 times, but not once does he call Him Yahshua. Why not? Mark uses at least six other original Hebrew words in his gospel account.

In the gospel of John we also find the same scenario. John uses a Hebrew derivative for "Messiah" in John 1:41 and John 4:25. He also uses a Hebrew derivative for "rabbi" or "rabboni" six times (John 1:38; John 1:49; John 3:2; John 3:26; John 6:25; John 20:16). John chooses to use Hebrew derivatives several times in the midst of his letter written in Greek. However, John never uses the Hebrew word Yahshua to refer to Jesus. John refers to Jesus over 250 times, and uses the Greek word "Iesous" every time. If saying Yahshua is as important as these modern-day old covenant teachers claim, certainly Mark or John would have used Yahshua at least once, for they used other Hebrew words and derivatives. Why didn't they? The answer is obvious. This modern-day "Yahshua doctrine" is nothing more than a new form of legalism, with absolutely no foundation in Scripture. God meets us all wherever we are. He communicates with the Chinese in the Chinese language. He communicates with the French in the French language. He communicates with the Greeks in the Greek language. And, He communicates with the English-speaking world, in the English language. Our Savior is known to us as Jesus.

Remember the words of the Apostle Paul, and "do not be entangled in a yoke of bondage" (Galatians 5:1). There is a modern-day "pharisaism" gaining popularity in some circles, requiring adherence to the Old Covenant feasts and using the name Yahshua. Do not be deceived into this system of bondage. Remember that Jesus was harder on the legalistic Pharisees than He was on the prostitutes and publicans. Jesus declared that the "harlots" would enter heaven before these legalistic teachers (Matthew 21:31).

For a more in-depth discussion of the topic of the nation of Israel and its feasts and ceremonies, read my article titled, "Israel", at my website address listed below.

I am an evangelical, non-denominational, Christian pastor. You can research other interesting and provocative topics at my website: http://www.godormen.com.

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